VIX volatility index “fear index” for options traders and ...

No gods, no kings, only NOPE - or divining the future with options flows. [Part 2: A Random Walk and Price Decoherence]

tl;dr -
1) Stock prices move continuously because different market participants end up having different ideas of the future value of a stock.
2) This difference in valuations is part of the reason we have volatility.
3) IV crush happens as a consequence of future possibilities being extinguished at a binary catalyst like earnings very rapidly, as opposed to the normal slow way.
I promise I'm getting to the good parts, but I'm also writing these as a guidebook which I can use later so people never have to talk to me again.
In this part I'm going to start veering a bit into the speculation territory (e.g. ideas I believe or have investigated, but aren't necessary well known) but I'm going to make sure those sections are properly marked as speculative (and you can feel free to ignore/dismiss them). Marked as [Lily's Speculation].
As some commenters have pointed out in prior posts, I do not have formal training in mathematical finance/finance (my background is computer science, discrete math, and biology), so often times I may use terms that I've invented which have analogous/existing terms (e.g. the law of surprise is actually the first law of asset pricing applied to derivatives under risk neutral measure, but I didn't know that until I read the papers later). If I mention something wrong, please do feel free to either PM me (not chat) or post a comment, and we can discuss/I can correct it! As always, buyer beware.
This is the first section also where you do need to be familiar with the topics I've previously discussed, which I'll add links to shortly (my previous posts:
1) https://www.reddit.com/thecorporation/comments/jck2q6/no_gods_no_kings_only_nope_or_divining_the_future/
2) https://www.reddit.com/thecorporation/comments/jbzzq4/why_options_trading_sucks_or_the_law_of_surprise/
---
A Random Walk Down Bankruptcy
A lot of us have probably seen the term random walk, maybe in the context of A Random Walk Down Wall Street, which seems like a great book I'll add to my list of things to read once I figure out how to control my ADD. It seems obvious, then, what a random walk means - when something is moving, it basically means that the next move is random. So if my stock price is $1 and I can move in $0.01 increments, if the stock price is truly randomly walking, there should be roughly a 50% chance it moves up in the next second (to $1.01) or down (to $0.99).
If you've traded for more than a hot minute, this concept should seem obvious, because especially on the intraday, it usually isn't clear why price moves the way it does (despite what chartists want to believe, and I'm sure a ton of people in the comments will tell me why fettucini lines and Batman doji tell them things). For a simple example, we can look at SPY's chart from Friday, Oct 16, 2020:

https://preview.redd.it/jgg3kup9dpt51.png?width=1368&format=png&auto=webp&s=bf8e08402ccef20832c96203126b60c23277ccc2
I'm sure again 7 different people can tell me 7 different things about why the chart shape looks the way it does, or how if I delve deeply enough into it I can find out which man I'm going to marry in 2024, but to a rationalist it isn't exactly apparent at why SPY's price declined from 349 to ~348.5 at around 12:30 PM, or why it picked up until about 3 PM and then went into precipitous decline (although I do have theories why it declined EOD, but that's for another post).
An extremely clever or bored reader from my previous posts could say, "Is this the price formation you mentioned in the law of surprise post?" and the answer is yes. If we relate it back to the individual buyer or seller, we can explain the concept of a stock price's random walk as such:
Most market participants have an idea of an asset's true value (an idealized concept of what an asset is actually worth), which they can derive using models or possibly enough brain damage. However, an asset's value at any given time is not worth one value (usually*), but a spectrum of possible values, usually representing what the asset should be worth in the future. A naive way we can represent this without delving into to much math (because let's face it, most of us fucking hate math) is:
Current value of an asset = sum over all (future possible value multiplied by the likelihood of that value)
In actuality, most models aren't that simple, but it does generalize to a ton of more complicated models which you need more than 7th grade math to understand (Black-Scholes, DCF, blah blah blah).
While in many cases the first term - future possible value - is well defined (Tesla is worth exactly $420.69 billion in 2021, and maybe we all can agree on that by looking at car sales and Musk tweets), where it gets more interesting is the second term - the likelihood of that value occurring. [In actuality, the price of a stock for instance is way more complicated, because a stock can be sold at any point in the future (versus in my example, just the value in 2021), and needs to account for all values of Tesla at any given point in the future.]
How do we estimate the second term - the likelihood of that value occurring? For this class, it actually doesn't matter, because the key concept is this idea: even with all market participants having the same information, we do anticipate that every participant will have a slightly different view of future likelihoods. Why is that? There's many reasons. Some participants may undervalue risk (aka WSB FD/yolos) and therefore weight probabilities of gaining lots of money much more heavily than going bankrupt. Some participants may have alternative data which improves their understanding of what the future values should be, therefore letting them see opportunity. Some participants might overvalue liquidity, and just want to GTFO and thereby accept a haircut on their asset's value to quickly unload it (especially in markets with low liquidity). Some participants may just be yoloing and not even know what Fastly does before putting their account all in weekly puts (god bless you).
In the end, it doesn't matter either the why, but the what: because of these diverging interpretations, over time, we can expect the price of an asset to drift from the current value even with no new information added. In most cases, the calculations that market participants use (which I will, as a Lily-ism, call the future expected payoff function, or FEPF) ends up being quite similar in aggregate, and this is why asset prices likely tend to move slightly up and down for no reason (or rather, this is one interpretation of why).
At this point, I expect the 20% of you who know what I'm talking about or have a finance background to say, "Oh but blah blah efficient market hypothesis contradicts random walk blah blah blah" and you're correct, but it also legitimately doesn't matter here. In the long run, stock prices are clearly not a random walk, because a stock's value is obviously tied to the company's fundamentals (knock on wood I don't regret saying this in the 2020s). However, intraday, in the absence of new, public information, it becomes a close enough approximation.
Also, some of you might wonder what happens when the future expected payoff function (FEPF) I mentioned before ends up wildly diverging for a stock between participants. This could happen because all of us try to short Nikola because it's quite obviously a joke (so our FEPF for Nikola could, let's say, be 0), while the 20 or so remaining bagholders at NikolaCorporation decide that their FEPF of Nikola is $10,000,000 a share). One of the interesting things which intuitively makes sense, is for nearly all stocks, the amount of divergence among market participants in their FEPF increases substantially as you get farther into the future.
This intuitively makes sense, even if you've already quit trying to understand what I'm saying. It's quite easy to say, if at 12:51 PM SPY is worth 350.21 that likely at 12:52 PM SPY will be worth 350.10 or 350.30 in all likelihood. Obviously there are cases this doesn't hold, but more likely than not, prices tend to follow each other, and don't gap up/down hard intraday. However, what if I asked you - given SPY is worth 350.21 at 12:51 PM today, what will it be worth in 2022?
Many people will then try to half ass some DD about interest rates and Trump fleeing to Ecuador to value SPY at 150, while others will assume bull markets will continue indefinitely and SPY will obviously be 7000 by then. The truth is -- no one actually knows, because if you did, you wouldn't be reading a reddit post on this at 2 AM in your jammies.
In fact, if you could somehow figure out the FEPF of all market participants at any given time, assuming no new information occurs, you should be able to roughly predict the true value of an asset infinitely far into the future (hint: this doesn't exactly hold, but again don't @ me).
Now if you do have a finance background, I expect gears will have clicked for some of you, and you may see strong analogies between the FEPF divergence I mentioned, and a concept we're all at least partially familiar with - volatility.
Volatility and Price Decoherence ("IV Crush")
Volatility, just like the Greeks, isn't exactly a real thing. Most of us have some familiarity with implied volatility on options, mostly when we get IV crushed the first time and realize we just lost $3000 on Tesla calls.
If we assume that the current price should represent the weighted likelihoods of all future prices (the random walk), volatility implies the following two things:
  1. Volatility reflects the uncertainty of the current price
  2. Volatility reflects the uncertainty of the future price for every point in the future where the asset has value (up to expiry for options)
[Ignore this section if you aren't pedantic] There's obviously more complex mathematics, because I'm sure some of you will argue in the comments that IV doesn't go up monotonically as option expiry date goes longer and longer into the future, and you're correct (this is because asset pricing reflects drift rate and other factors, as well as certain assets like the VIX end up having cost of carry).
Volatility in options is interesting as well, because in actuality, it isn't something that can be exactly computed -- it arises as a plug between the idealized value of an option (the modeled price) and the real, market value of an option (the spot price). Additionally, because the makeup of market participants in an asset's market changes over time, and new information also comes in (thereby increasing likelihood of some possibilities and reducing it for others), volatility does not remain constant over time, either.
Conceptually, volatility also is pretty easy to understand. But what about our friend, IV crush? I'm sure some of you have bought options to play events, the most common one being earnings reports, which happen quarterly for every company due to regulations. For the more savvy, you might know of expected move, which is a calculation that uses the volatility (and therefore price) increase of at-the-money options about a month out to calculate how much the options market forecasts the underlying stock price to move as a response to ER.
Binary Catalyst Events and Price Decoherence
Remember what I said about price formation being a gradual, continuous process? In the face of special circumstances, in particularly binary catalyst events - events where the outcome is one of two choices, good (1) or bad (0) - the gradual part gets thrown out the window. Earnings in particular is a common and notable case of a binary event, because the price will go down (assuming the company did not meet the market's expectations) or up (assuming the company exceeded the market's expectations) (it will rarely stay flat, so I'm not going to address that case).
Earnings especially is interesting, because unlike other catalytic events, they're pre-scheduled (so the whole market expects them at a certain date/time) and usually have publicly released pre-estimations (guidance, analyst predictions). This separates them from other binary catalysts (e.g. FSLY dipping 30% on guidance update) because the market has ample time to anticipate the event, and participants therefore have time to speculate and hedge on the event.
In most binary catalyst events, we see rapid fluctuations in price, usually called a gap up or gap down, which is caused by participants rapidly intaking new information and changing their FEPF accordingly. This is for the most part an anticipated adjustment to the FEPF based on the expectation that earnings is a Very Big Deal (TM), and is the reason why volatility and therefore option premiums increase so dramatically before earnings.
What makes earnings so interesting in particular is the dramatic effect it can have on all market participants FEPF, as opposed to let's say a Trump tweet, or more people dying of coronavirus. In lots of cases, especially the FEPF of the short term (3-6 months) rapidly changes in response to updated guidance about a company, causing large portions of the future possibility spectrum to rapidly and spectacularly go to zero. In an instant, your Tesla 10/30 800Cs go from "some value" to "not worth the electrons they're printed on".
[Lily's Speculation] This phenomena, I like to call price decoherence, mostly as an analogy to quantum mechanical processes which produce similar results (the collapse of a wavefunction on observation). Price decoherence occurs at a widespread but minor scale continuously, which we normally call price formation (and explains portions of the random walk derivation explained above), but hits a special limit in the face of binary catalyst events, as in an instant rapid portions of the future expected payoff function are extinguished, versus a more gradual process which occurs over time (as an option nears expiration).
Price decoherence, mathematically, ends up being a more generalizable case of the phenomenon we all love to hate - IV crush. Price decoherence during earnings collapses the future expected payoff function of a ticker, leading large portions of the option chain to be effectively worthless (IV crush). It has interesting implications, especially in the case of hedged option sellers, our dear Market Makers. This is because given the expectation that they maintain delta-gamma neutral, and now many of the options they have written are now worthless and have 0 delta, what do they now have to do?
They have to unwind.
[/Lily's Speculation]
- Lily
submitted by the_lilypad to thecorporation [link] [comments]

Apple earnings condor, also expected moves in GOOGL AMZN FB

Apple earnings condor, also expected moves in GOOGL AMZN FB
Obviously a massive day for earnings. The VIX is near 40, and that means expected moves for all stocks have expanded. 7 day expected moves for Apple, Amazon, Microsoft, Alphabet and Facebook are now about 25% more than they were at this time last week, now having to incorporate the election and broader market vol. However... because it's Thursday we get a pretty good sense of the event moves themselves using tomorrow's expiration. Here's how the expected moves for tomorrow's close look for the big 4 reporting tonight:
Amazon / 4.9%
chart
Alphabet / 4.0%
chart
Facebook / 5.3%
chart
Apple / 4.2%
chart

Here's how that expected move translates into the condor in AAPL for tomorrow's expiry. It's weird seeing numbers so small for AAPL post split, is the 10 wide condor too tight? $5 moves don't seem very big but it is a different stock now at 114, the risk-reward is decent for something so binary and getting it as close to 1 to 1 is ideal (if possible).

https://i.redd.it/gh9g4pxo22w51.gif
I think directionally Apple (or any of these really) have set-ups for really decent debit spreads, not for tomorrow, but looking out to Nov 20th. More at optionseye including the Debit Spread chart
Let me know what you all are looking at in the comments.
submitted by cclagator to options [link] [comments]

How to really, truly calculate expected move?

Hi everybody. Hopefully this post doesn't sound too rant-y but I'm pretty frustrated by the amount of info out there that I'm not able to pick up on. There just seems to be a million ways to do calculated expected move. Here's what I've gathered so far.
There seems to be two general methods:
First Method: IV-Based
where P = price, IV = annualized implied volatility, DTE = days to expiration [0]
This means that there is a 68% probability that the stock in question will be between -1 and +1 sigma at the date of expiration, a 95% probability between -2 and +2, and a 99% probability between -3 and +3.
Sometimes 250-252 is used instead of 365, which seems to be the case when DTE refers to market days until expiration. Is that correct?
There are a number of ways to calculate IV. I would appreciate it if somebody could elaborate on which might be best and the differences between them:
  1. ThinkOrSwim uses the Bjerksund-Stensland Model [1] - I assume this is the "annualized" implied volatility aforementioned, because it is an IV value assigned to the stock as a whole ... what does that mean? I thought IV values were only calculated for a specific option contract??
    1. As an aside, ToS in particular confuses me because none of the IVs seem to correlate - Exhibit A
  2. I thought I might look into how VIX was priced off of SPY [2], as an analog, and use it as a basis for finding IV for any other stock as a whole. I don't know where they got their formula from
  3. Backsolve for IV using Black-Scholes [3]. This would only gives one value for IV, which I think only applies to that specific option contract and not to the stock as a whole??
  4. Some websites say to use the IV given that is closest to the desired time period [4] - of course I have no idea how the IV is calculated in the first place (Bjerksund-Stensland again? Black-Scholes?) What's the difference between using the IV of a weekly or a yearly option?
  5. Brenner and Subrahmanyam [5] - understood that this seems to be just an approximation. Should I be looking at formulas from 1988, however?
A very big question of mine is why there is an implied volatility for the stock as a whole and an implied volatility for every other options contract. I can kind of understand it both ways - why should a later-expiry contract have the same IV as an earlier-expiry contract? On the other hand, why should they be different? Why isn't there just one IV for the stock as a whole?

Second Method: Straddle-Based
My understanding is that this is more used for binary events like earnings, but in general I've found two methods:
I have no idea where [5] comes from and I can sort of understand 6 but not really.

In the end, I'm just trying to be as accurate as possible. Is there a best, preferred method to calculating the expected move of a stock in a given timeframe? Is there a best, preferred method to calculating IV (I'm inclined to go with ToS's model simply because they're large and trusted). Is there some Python library out there that already does this? For a retail trader like me, does it even matter??
Any help is appreciated. Thanks!
submitted by hatitat to options [link] [comments]

Eli5 CBOE Volatility Index

BVZ went up 115% yesterday, can somebody explain me how this thing works?
submitted by alohaclaude to wallstreetbets [link] [comments]

Research papers I'm reading this month

Hi all, was doing searching for some research papers like I do every few months, and decided I'd throw them up here if anyone is interested in them.
Most of these link directly to pdfs (view, not instant-download).
bolded = you should read them
If anyone else reads these, I'm sure lots of the guys here would appreciate a quick review, summary points, or just your thoughts on any of them.
  1. Forecasting Volatility in Financial Markets: a Review (60 pages)
  2. Option Strategies: Good Deals and Margin Calls (40 pages)
  3. Option trading strategies based on semiparametric implied volatility surface prediction (30 pages)
  4. Short Term Variations and Long-term Dynamics in Commodity Prices (20 pages)
  5. Success and failure of technical trading strategies in the cocoa futures market (40 pages)
  6. The Information Content of the S&P 500 Index and VIX Options on the Dynamics of the S&P 500 Index (45 pages)
  7. The Performance of Model Based Option Trading Strategies (25 pages)
  8. evidence on the efficiency of index option markets (15 pages)
  9. OPTIONS EVALUATION - BLACK-SCHOLES MODEL VS. BINOMIAL OPTIONS PRICING MODEL (10 pages)
  10. ECB: risk, uncertainty, and monetary policy (40 pages)
  11. TIMING STRATEGY PERFORMANCE IN THE CRUDE OIL FUTURES MARKET (30 pages)
  12. An Anatomy of Futures Returns: Risk Premiums and Trading Strategies (40 pages)
  13. Roll strategy efficiency in commodity futures markets (40 pages)
  14. Spread trading strategies in the crude oil futures markets (35 pages)
  15. Commodity Strategies Based on Momentum, Term Structure and Idiosyncratic Volatility (20 pages)
  16. AN EXAMINATION OF MOMENTUM STRATEGIES IN COMMODITY FUTURES MARKETS (30 pages)
  17. understanding crude oil prices (45 pages)
  18. BONUS BOOK: The Bond and Money Markets: Strategy, Trading, Analysis (1150 pages): a comprehensive textbook on bonds, interest-rate derivatives, money markets, credit derivatives, yield curve analysis, structured products, CDOs
submitted by ObviousTwist to thewallstreet [link] [comments]

What if index investing doesn't work? (xpost r/StockMarket)

I am not 100% sold on the idea of index investing and buy and hold investing. It took 13 years for the NASDAQ to recover from its highs in 1999. The Nikkei is still underwater from its highs in 1989.
That raises a red flag for me. What if that happened here? What if we were still recovering from the huge loses in 2008/2009 in the S&P500? Is it not conceivable that the S&P500 could drop drastically and stay down for a long time. If an investor just holds index funds, that could be very painful.
The trouble is we don’t know. My predictive powers of where the market will be tomorrow, never mind in 10 years, is zero.
I believe there are investors out there who think like me. These people are scared that buying and holding index investments won’t always work. They are also not content with being just average - i.e. just getting the returns of the markets.
I can’t argue with the merits of index funds for a big chunk of the investment population? It is hard to time the market and most people would do better just sticking their money in low-fee index funds and leaving it there.
I still do have a good chunk of my portfolio invested in the indexes as that does provide diversification and allows me to achieve the returns of the market. However, I am adding riskier investment strategies to my portfolio of core index funds in order to go for increased returns as well as manage the risk long market drawdowns will have on portfolios that only invest in the indexes.
Here are five of those strategies that I am either looking into or currently investing in:
Rather than get into a debate about the merits or concerns about these strategies in particular, my question for redditors is:
Looking forward to everyone’s thoughts on this topic.
submitted by jeremyjmcneil to InvestmentEducation [link] [comments]

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